This will be brief as it is less an argument I want to make and more an idea I’m hoping to sound out.

I have previously argued that the Real is absolutely inexperienceable  by definition, that is, the Real, in order to be experienced, would have to be linguistified, the very act of which would render the event in the symbolic and negate its essence as the Real. I wonder, however if emotions which are “beyond words” or “inexpressible” constitute experiences with the Real. This then leads me to the question: if by even stating that one is in a love so great that it can’t be expressed or terrified in ways that are unimaginable (H.P. Lovecraft, why do I think that here? If so, then perhaps Lovecraft is a better Lacanian than Hitchcock.) is one not in some way symbolizing the potential Real in the event. This would leave Real emotions as only those one is unaware they are experiencing.

I think, ultimately, I find myself back at the doctrinaire answer that the Real cannot be experienced. Sound off in the comments below.

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